Comments on economics, mystery fiction, drama, and art.

Monday, June 05, 2006

Not my field of expertise, but...

Well, I see that a constitutional amendment defining marriage as being between one man and one woman (I presume that's "at a time;" having managed to get married three times myself...) is about to come up for a vote in Congress.

What I was wondering is this. I know that the amendment presumes to speak only about laws enacted by states or by the federal government. But suppose there's a church (possibly the Unitarians?) that defines marriage as a loving relationship between two adults who are committed to a lige-long relationship. Would the proposed marriage amendment then contradict--or at the very least come into conflict with--the First Amendment? And, if it did, which would win out in a court challenge?

Just asking.

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